I'm just wondering, and thinking that if the exit polls weren't wrong, and I see no reason they should be so wrong, and if they might have only been wrong in 2000 and 2004, and not in previous elections, then we can be pretty sure the voting machines were intentionally jacked. (See more on voting machine inadequacies and risks on my webpage here. And don't forget the Diebold CEO's promise to deliver Ohio to Bush.)
Now, today I see this comment on a blog:
At the moment I'm not quite resigned to simply accepting the votes in FL & OH as provided. That the difference between the exit polls and the reported votes is so vast in those two places and ONLY those two places is suspicious enough to warrant some investigation.
Is that true? That the exit polls were only wrong in Florida and Ohio? Does anybody know? And what about before 2000?
Or do I have to research this myself?
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